I have never understood the baseball rule that allows a fielder to block a base if the fielder has the ball, preventing the baserunner from having access to it. Aside from the fact that many times fielders block bases prior to having the ball and interference is never called, this does not make sense to me.
Why should access to the base be denied the runner? Here is an example: A runner is attempting to steal second and is sliding into the base. The second-baseman kneels on his left knee, with his lower leg blocking the base. He stretches toward the throw from the catcher and catches it just prior to the runner reaching second. With access to the base, the runner would slide in safely before the fielder could tag the runner, but because the base is blocked, the runner slides into the fielder’s leg, never reaching the base, and is thus tagged out. The runner would have easily beaten the tag if not for the base being blocked. I realize that the fielder risks getting spiked, but fielders could wear protective pads.
Allowing fielders to block bases has resulted in big collisions and major injuries. Runners trying to score sometimes have no choice but to crash into a catcher who might or might not be defenseless depending upon the play, resulting in a major collision and, at times, major injuries. Examples are Pete Rose colliding with Ray Fosse in the 1970 All-Star Game (Fosse was never the same afterward) and Scott Cousins colliding with Buster Posey more recently. Forcing the runner to collide very hard with the catcher in order to reach the plate will lead to further injuries, including concussions.
First-basemen also block the base on pickoff throws from catchers and pitchers.
I believe a fielder should have to straddle the base if they want to be in the baseline, and provide the runner access to the base. What possible reason could there be to give the fielder an advantage by denying the runner access to the base?
Now, to hitting a batter. There are times when a batter will hit multiple homeruns in a game, and the pitcher will retaliate by hitting him so he doesn’t feel so comfortable in the batter’s box. If it is okay for a pitcher to hit a batter who is doing his job, the reverse should also hold. If a pitcher strikes a batter out multiple times in a game, in an effort for the batter to not let the pitcher feel so comfortable, he should “accidentally” let the bat fly toward the mound on a swing. What is the difference? Both are wrong, but the first scenario is “part of the sport.” Why should it be?